Picture Easter Sunday morning. The church is full, the music swells, and someone calls out: “He is risen!” The crowd responds: “He is risen indeed!” It’s one of the most powerful moments in Christian worship. But quietly, in the back of a few minds, a question lingers — is “He is risen” even grammatically correct, or should it be “He has risen”?
That question is more interesting than it sounds. It pulls together Early Modern English, Koine Greek, biblical translation history, and centuries of Christian theology — all packed into two tiny words: is and has. Both phrases proclaim the same glorious truth, but each one says it differently. Here’s exactly what that difference means, and which one you should use.
The Grammar Behind “He Is Risen” vs. “He Has Risen”
These two phrases look almost identical, but they use different grammatical structures rooted in different eras of English.
- “He has risen” — modern present perfect tense, using “has” as the auxiliary verb. This follows current standard English grammar, just like “he has left” or “he has returned.”
- “He is risen” — an older construction using “to be” as the auxiliary verb instead of “to have.” This pattern was standard in Early Modern English and survives today in fixed religious phrases.
Think of parallel expressions: “he is gone,” “the sun is set,” “winter is come.” These are all archaic “to be + past participle” constructions that sound poetic and formal today — because they are old. “He is risen” belongs in exactly that category.
In modern writing outside a religious or liturgical context, “he has risen” is always the grammatically standard choice.
What Does “He Is Risen” Emphasize?
“He is risen” puts the spotlight on Jesus’ present, ongoing state of being alive. It’s not only about something that happened on Easter morning — it declares His current reality.
Key theological emphases of this phrase:
- Eternal present: Jesus didn’t rise temporarily. He remains risen. The construction implies permanence.
- Passive voice theology: The phrasing subtly reflects that God the Father raised Jesus — not that Jesus raised himself. This aligns with Acts 2:24, where Peter declares that “God raised him from the dead.”
- Timeless truth: Theologians refer to this as the gnomic use — a statement of eternal reality, like “God is love” or “the sky is blue.”
In the King James Version (1611), the angel at the empty tomb says: “He is not here: for he is risen, as he said” (Matthew 28:6, KJV). The translators of the KJV chose this construction deliberately to capture the idea that the resurrection is not a completed-and-closed historical footnote, but an ongoing, living reality.
What Does “He Has Risen” Emphasize?
“He has risen” uses the modern present perfect tense, which connects a past action to its current relevance. It says: something happened in the past, and it still matters right now.
Key emphases of this phrase:
- Completed action: The resurrection is a historical event — Jesus rose on the third day. The fact is confirmed.
- Present relevance: The “has” construction ties that past victory directly to the present, saying the effects are still active today.
- Clarity: For modern readers and general audiences, “has risen” reads as clear, natural, and unambiguous.
Most modern Bible translations — including the NIV, ESV, and NRSV — render Matthew 28:6 using “has risen” because it aligns with current English grammar while preserving the theological truth.
Biblical Origins: Where Do We Find These Phrases?
The Greek verb at the heart of this debate is ἠγέρθη (ēgerthē) — used in Matthew 28:6, Mark 16:6, and Luke 24:6. Grammatically, it is an aorist passive indicative, which means:
| Greek Feature | Meaning |
| Aorist tense | A completed action, without specifying duration |
| Passive voice | Jesus was raised — by the Father — not that he raised himself |
| Indicative mood | A statement of fact; this really happened |
Because the Greek aorist tense does not specify whether the action is fully past or has ongoing effects, translators have legitimate room to render it as either “He is risen” (emphasizing present state) or “He has risen” (emphasizing completed action). Both are faithful to the original Greek.
Here’s how key Bible translations render Matthew 28:6:
| Bible Translation | Phrasing Used |
| King James Version (1611) | He is risen |
| New International Version (NIV) | He has risen |
| English Standard Version (ESV) | He has risen |
| New King James Version (NKJV) | He is risen |
| New Revised Standard Version | He has been raised |
The phrase also appears across multiple Gospel accounts, reinforcing its doctrinal centrality — Matthew 28:6, Mark 16:6, Luke 24:6, and Luke 24:34 all contain resurrection proclamations. Paul echoes this truth powerfully in 1 Corinthians 15:20 and Romans 8:34.
The Theological Significance of “Is Risen” vs. “Has Risen”
The difference between these two phrases isn’t merely linguistic — it reflects a beautiful theological tension at the heart of Christian belief.
“He is risen” declares a present, eternal truth. Christ is not “was risen” — he is risen, alive now, seated at the right hand of the Father. This phrasing resonates with the Orthodox and Catholic liturgical tradition, where the Easter greeting “Christos Anesti!” (“Christ is risen!”) is exchanged with “Alithos Anesti!” (“Truly, He is risen!”). The use of present tense makes it a living proclamation.
“He has risen” emphasizes the historical event and its enduring significance. Paul’s argument in 1 Corinthians 15 hinges on the resurrection as a dateable, verifiable fact. If Christ has been raised, then believers will be raised. The event grounds the hope.
Key takeaway: Both phrases convey the same eternal truth. The difference is one of emphasis, not contradiction. “He is risen” declares a state; “He has risen” declares an action. Both are true simultaneously.
Which Phrase Should Christians Use Today?
There is no single right answer — the best choice depends on your context and purpose.
Use “He is risen” when:
- Speaking or worshiping in a liturgical, traditional, or church setting
- Referencing or quoting the King James Bible or other classic translations
- You want to emphasize the present reality of Christ’s resurrection
- Writing for Easter worship, hymns, or devotional content
Use “He has risen” when:
- Writing in modern standard English (articles, academic papers, general blogs)
- Communicating to audiences unfamiliar with traditional religious language
- You want to emphasize the completed historical event of the resurrection
- Using modern Bible translations in study or teaching
One practical tip: keep your response consistent. If you say “He is risen!”, the traditional response is “He is risen indeed!” If you say “He has risen!”, follow with “He has risen indeed!”
Final Verdict
Both “He is risen” and “He has risen” are grammatically legitimate and theologically sound. Neither is wrong.
- “He is risen” is the older, more poetic construction drawn from Early Modern English and preserved in the KJV. It emphasizes the permanent, ongoing state of Christ’s resurrection life. It carries centuries of liturgical weight and remains the standard phrase in traditional worship.
- “He has risen” is the modern standard form, using present perfect grammar correctly and emphasizing the completed resurrection event with continuing relevance. It’s preferred in contemporary Bible translations and everyday English.
The debate between these phrases ultimately isn’t about grammar — it’s about the resurrection itself, and both phrases proclaim it powerfully. Whether you say “He is risen” or “He has risen,” you are declaring the cornerstone of Christian faith: Jesus Christ conquered death, and the grave is empty.
